1 Answers
Lokesh Verma
·2009-04-06 21:27:33
write n as p.q such that p≠q (If that cant be done we wll prove seperately!)
lets look at the only non trivial case when the number is a perfect square of a prime...
n=p2
2p<p2 since p>2
so (n-1)! is divisible by p and 2p (since they are both less than equal to (n-1)
hence the proof :)