Maybe Tough...Maybe easy...Try this one..for all

Let n be an integer such that

1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ....+ 1/31 = n/31!

Compute the remainder when n is divided by 17.

OPTIONS

1) 16
2) 7
3) 8
4) 9
5) None of these

14 Answers

341
Hari Shankar ·

16

156
Rajiv Agarwal ·

The answer is 9 :(

341
Hari Shankar ·

are you sure? i am pretty certain its 16

62
Lokesh Verma ·

For obvious reasons ... the remainder is same as the remainder when (31! / 17) is divided by 17

Use wilson's theorem to proceed after this..
-1 x (1.2.3.4.5.6.7.8.9.10.11.12.13.14) / 17
17,34,51,68,85,102,119, 136, 153,
=-1 x (2.9).(3.6).(5.7).(8.10).(11.12).(13..4).(14) / 17
=-1 x (18).(18).(35).(80).(11.12).(13..4).(14) / 17
=-1 x (-1). (1).(1).(-5).(-4).(1).(-3) / 17
=(5).(12) / 17
=(60) / 17

Which is equal to 9

I dont know if there is a simpler way... Am I missing something?

24
eureka123 ·

wilson's theorem [7][7]

whats that ?

341
Hari Shankar ·

hmm, quite a silly mistake by me.[31-17 = 15 :( ]

As nishant sir pointed out, we have to find the remainder when 31!/17 is divided by 17.

i.e. when 16! (18*19*...*31) is divided by 17

From Wilson's Theorem 16!≡-1 mod 17

Now since 18≡1 , 19≡2.,..., 31≡14 mod 17

their product will be ≡ 14! mod 17

Again Wilson's Theorem tells us that 16!≡-1 mod 17

or 15! X 16 ≡-1 mod 17.

But 16≡-1 mod 17 so that 15!≡1 mod 17

That means 14! X 15≡1 mod 17

But 8X15≡1 mod 17 so that 14!≡8 mod 17

That gives that 31!/17≡-8≡9 mod 17

1
fibonacci ·

prophet sir can you explain the 2nd last step
'14! X 15 ≡1mod 17
But 8X15 ≡ 1 mod 17 so that 14!≡8mod 17

62
Lokesh Verma ·

8 is the inverse of 15

so multiply both sides by 8

'14! X 15 ≡1mod 17

this implies

'14! X 15 x8 ≡1x8 mod 17

'14! X (15 x8) ≡1x8 mod 17

'14! X (1) ≡8 mod 17

341
Hari Shankar ·

Yeah actually I wanted to avoid introducing the concept of inverse but thats precisely how you reason it

14!≡1/15≡8 mod

Otherwise you have 14! X 15 ≡1 mod 17 and 8X15≡1 mod 17, so subtracting, we get (14!-8)X15≡0 mod 17, and since 17 does not divide 15, it divides 14!-8.

That means 14!-8≡0 mod 17 or 14!≡8 mod 17

1
fibonacci ·

got it thanks nishant sir and prophet sir

62
Lokesh Verma ·

@Eureka...

Wilson's Theorem is basically

(p-1)! ≡ -1 (mod p) for prime number p

1
Kaustab Sarkar ·

are dese questions useful for jee since wilson theorem is not in jee syllabus

62
Lokesh Verma ·

No this is not very important for JEE as such..

but this is like a 5 minute thing that does not require too much brain either :D

3
msp ·

lots of pinks here,but i cant understand even a single piece of discussion

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