1wow!!!!it depends on various cases!
CASE-I=> y=0..... modulus of 0≤sin(x+iy)≤1
CASE-II => y≠0......modulus is not defined......infact the function itself is not defined[3][3].....as dom(f(x,y))=R
9 Answers
1
1i dont have the answer .one of my friends gave me this ques.
@ramkumar is the question really that stupid.
1NO QUESTION IS STUPID FRIEND.....infact many would have got it wrong in an exam hall simply writing the answer as[0,1]........so see it a thing i call
CLASSIC CONCEPT BUILDER QUESTION[1]
39well ramkumar , the domain is so only in case of real analysis ,
sin (x+iy) is defined in case of functions of a complex variable
abd @jagaran ,
its out of all the syllabus of all enterances.. so no need to go into details of these
1well b555
as far as wat i know sin function is basically MEANT FOR AN ANGLE......and an angle is something which has REAL SIGNIFIANCE........not imaginary LOL!!!!.......so for our purpose what i wrote is in post #2
39I found this -:
"For any real x and y, sin(x+iy)=sin(x)cosh(y)+i.cos(x)sinh(y)"
Source : http://thesaurus.maths.org/mmkb/entry.html?action=entryById&id=2436
@ramkumar - Don't underestimate b555...maanta hun bondu hai woh magar maths ka baap hai :P
sinh and cosh btw are hyperbolic sine and hyperbolic cosine functions respectively.
So modulus would become I guess = √sin²xcosh²y + cos²xsinh²y
1hey pritish see wat i wrote for our purpose.......i mean for our purpose........most of times he tlks of things useless for our purpose.....
39Yaar who's the he??
If its b555 he did say its out of entrance syllabus...lol mujhe nahi pata main thermo padhne jaa raha hun..achchi tarah se ladh lena :P