i can understand mod z2 but how mod z is coming?
4 Answers
kaymant
·Jan 14 '10 at 12:26
That's because
2a2+2−√a4+4a2
=42a2+4−2√a2(a2+4)
=4a2+(a2+4)−2a√(a2+4)
=(2√a2+4−a)2
And similarly for the other one.