1f(n+2)=f(n+1)+(n+2)!
&(n+2)!=(n+2)(n+1)!=(n+2){f(n+1)-f(n)}
now i guess,u can solve it
pl tell hw 2 do
Q .Let n be a positive integer and f(n) = 1! + 2! + 3! +........n! and R(x) and Q(x) be polynomials in x such that
f(n+2)= R(n)f(n+1) + Q(n)f(n) for all n≥1
Now let P(x) = - Q(x)/R(x) (for all x ≥ 1) denotes the probability of an arbitrary event. then P(1).P(2) is
a) 3/5
b) 1/2
c) 1/4
d) 2/5
thankx
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