1i cld jst get tht much tht process P-1 times.........bt thn also ball is drawn each time nd 1 more is added
A bag contains P+1 balls and a ball is drawn.Now ball is replaced in the bag with one more ball and again a ball is drawn and the process is repeated till P-1 more balls are there in the bag.Find the probability of drawing a ball when the bag contains P+1 or more balls as P→∞
a)Tan 2
b)ln4
c)ln2
d)1/2
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8 Answers
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62i think it should be
limit p going to infinity of :
1/(p+1) + 1/(p+2).... +1/(2p)
62or should it be
1- p/(p+1) . (p+1)/(p+2).... .(2p-1)/(2p)
=1-1/2
=1/2?