21
Shubhodip
·2011-05-24 01:11:41
f(a) = f(b) = f(c) = 1
By Rolle's theorem f'(x) = 0 ,somewhere between a and b , and b and c. i.e f'(x) has two zeros.
but f is a polynomial function of degree two.
so it can't have two roots.
f'(x) must be zero for all real x
so f(x) must be constant
f(x) = f(a) = 1
1
aditya ravichandran
·2011-05-24 02:57:31
my method is also same as shubodip's
i considered
P(x)=f(x)-1
since -a,-b,-c are roots of this quadratic ,means its an identity
so ,it is true for all x
hence f(x) is a constant function
1708
man111 singh
·2011-05-24 11:36:30
Yes Shubhodip and DanTe^signin off Right answer.
1
seoni
·2011-05-24 12:55:09
or we can simply find coefficients of x^2, and x, by taking l.c.m, they'll come out to be 0..
and the constant term will come out to be 1..
1
aditya ravichandran
·2011-05-25 14:06:23
@ seoni i seriously dont mean to offend you , but the question setter doesnt want you do that way