i think we have to prove
f(x1).f(x2)=f2(ξ)
it seems logical for non constant function
but not getting the proof
Prove the following:
For every real valued function f differentiable on an interval [a,b] not containing 0 and for all pairs x1 ≠x2 in [a,b], there exists a point ξ in (x1, x2) such that
x1−x2x1f(x2)−x2f(x1)=f(ξ)−ξf′(ξ)
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8 Answers
G(x)=xf(x).
H(x)=x1.
Now from Cauchy, H(x1)−H(x2)G(x1)−G(x2)=H′(α)G′(α).
The result follows.
bhai soumik
" by cauchy "
wats this can u tell in detail
or is it simply dividing two equations of LMVT ???
interesting
this theorem is called as extended mean value theorem
proof :
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/ExtendedMeanValueTheorem.html
one more theorem which i came across
intermediate value theorem
http://www.calculus-help.com/the-intermediate-value-theorem/
This variant of LMVT is also known as Pompeiu's mean value theorem. It could also be proved by applying LMVT to the function
F(t)=tf(t1)
in the interval [1/a, 1/b]
sir one doubt
is this true ?
f(x1).f(x2)=f2(ξ)
for some ξ →(x1,x2) ???