Its using integral calculus
10 Answers
virang1 Jhaveri
·2009-03-08 00:09:49
But i have a proof using calculus
Think about it then i will give the solution
Anirudh Narayanan
·2009-03-08 00:11:33
Maybe we can solve........but we definitely can't prove
If u want us to prove that result, then u first prove either of the following:
0 = π/2
or
sin-1x + cos-1x ≠π/2
MATRIX
·2009-03-08 00:12:30
simple take y=sin-1x
and z=cos-1x
then dy/dx=1/√1-x2
dz/dx=-1/√1-x2
so dy/dx=-dz/dx
cancelling dx and integrating on both sides
y =-z + c
therefore
sin-1x=-cos-1x + c
hey one Constant should be there in ur question.......[1][1][1].....