IS THE ANSWER 1.
\hspace{-16}$If $\bf{\mathbb{I} = \int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\pi}{\pi^2-\cos^2 (x)}dx}$, Then $\bf{[\;\mathbb{I}\; ]=}$
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3 Answers
Shaswata Roy
·2013-02-23 10:40:05
It's 0.
- Hardik Sheth given integral is greater than pie/(pie)square from o to pie.so greater than 1 of courseUpvote·0· Reply ·2013-02-23 10:55:23
- Hardik Sheth given integral is also less than ln 3.