Can the base of a logarithm be equal to 1?
5 Answers
Lokesh Verma
·2009-01-05 20:04:25
logmod(sinx)y>0
mod(sinx)<1 always
logmod(sinx)<0
so we want
log y/ log mod(sinx)>0
hence we want log y < 0
so we want y > 1
so
Lokesh Verma
·2009-01-05 20:05:39
also we want x such that the function is defined..
that will be when sinx is not 1 or 0
that is multiple of pi/2
hence it will be?? (someone ready to fill the last step?)