fiitjee part test 1

let f(x) , x ε [0,∞) be a non negative continuous function.
If f '(x) cosx ≤ f(x) sinx for all x≥0 then value of f(2π) is-
a)0
b)1
c)Î
d)none

23 Answers

24
eureka123 ·

ya ans should be c,d in my opinio..but it would be good to take expert opinion on this one[1]

62
Lokesh Verma ·

S[n]=3/4 +15/16 +63/64 +......
find S[n] ?
a) n- 1/3*4^n - 1/3
b) n +1/3*4^(-n) -1/3
c) n + 1/3*4^(n) -1/3
d) n- 1/3*4^(-n) +1/3

S[n] = (1-1/4)+(1-1/16)+(1-1/64)+....

= n - (1/4+1/16+1/64....)

=n-\frac{1}{4}\times\frac{1-(1/4^n)}{1-1/4} =n-\frac{1}{3}\times[1-(1/4^n)]

Hence option b [1]

341
Hari Shankar ·

You know, it would be easier if you posted separate qns in separate threads and in the appropriate sub-fora.

4
UTTARA ·

So ans is BCD ???

1
soumigiri ·

S[n]=3/4 +15/16 +63/64 +......
find S[n] ?
a) n- 1/3*4^n - 1/3
b) n +1/3*4^(-n) -1/3
c) n + 1/3*4^(n) -1/3
d) n- 1/3*4^(-n) +1/3

1
decoder ·

post #10 (b) option is correct

see the case of f(x)=(1-x3)1/3

points of intersection of the line and the inverse does not lie on line y=x

4
UTTARA ·

Any tries for post #10 plzzzzzzzz

4
UTTARA ·

Thanks for that solution sinchan

1
CALCULAS ALGEBRA ·

1/2\int_{0}^{\Pi /2}{f(2x)+f"(2x)}sin2xdx
let 2x=z
then I=1/4
\int_{0}^{\Pi }{f(z)+f"(z)}sinzdz
ADDING AND SUBTRACTING f'(z)cosz
I=1/4\int_{0}^{\Pi }[{f(z)sinz-f'(z)cosz}+{f'(z)cosz+f"(z)sinz}]dz
I=1/4\int_{0}^{\Pi }[d/dz{-f(z)cosz}+d/dz{f'(Z)sinz}]dz
or I=[-f(z)cosz+f'(z)sinz]0 to π
putting limits I=0
because f(0)=f(Ï€)=0
and sin0=sinπ=0
thus option d is correct

24
eureka123 ·

plz help in Q2 also sir

341
Hari Shankar ·

1st one:

f'(x) \cos x \le f(x) \sin x \Rightarrow \int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{2 \pi} f'(x) \cos x \ dx \le \int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{2 \pi} f(x) \sin x \ dx

\Rightarrow \left | f(x) \cos x \right|_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{2 \pi} + \int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{2 \pi} f(x) \sin \ dx \le \int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{2 \pi} f(x) \sin x \ dx

\Rightarrow f(2 \pi) \le 0

But since f(x) is given to be non-negative we have f(2 \pi) \ge 0

From the above two inequalities, it is evident that f(2 \pi) = 0

341
Hari Shankar ·

eureka, is f(x) = 2 an invertible function?

39
Dr.House ·

well , is it your doubt or a challenge for others to try?

4
UTTARA ·

Ans is given as A B D

Even I was doubtful by the given ans

So, can v go with c d

24
eureka123 ·

a) is wrong...if a fn is defined such that f(x)=2 .so it lies on x axis...and its mirror image in y=x will be on y axis (y=2)...and they are intersecting orthogonally clearly...
b) is also wrong,,,,f(X) and f inverse must intersect on y=x only

c) also looks true..but not sure
d) is true,,,,it was discussed some time back here..

4
UTTARA ·

MULTIPLE ANSWER QS

If f(x) has finite slope everywhere and is an invertible function, then

(A) y = f(x) & y = f-1 (x) cannot intersect orthogonally

(B) y = f(x) & y = f-1 (x) may have points of intersection not on the line y=x

(C) If f(x) ≠x then ∫[a-->b] f(x)dx ≠∫[a-->b] f-1(x) dx (a≠b)

(D) ∫[a-->b] f(x) dx + ∫[f(a) ---> f(b)] f-1(x) dx = bf(b) - af(a) . Given that f'(x)>0
for all x belongs to R

4
UTTARA ·

If f(x) is a continuous function in [0,pi] such that f(0) = f(pi) = 0 then the values of

∫[0 to pi/2] [ f(2x) + f' ' (2x) ] sinx cosx dx is equal to

a) pi

b) 2 pi

c) 3 pi

d)None

3
iitimcomin ·

see f''(x) cannot be less than zero as it will cause the slope to become negative and hence f(x) which contradicts ""non negative"" !!!!!!!!! so f''(x)=0!! thus slope is constant

and f'(0)<=0 !!!!! so f'(x) = 0!!!!

also we have 0<=f(x)sinx ..... but!! sinx can fluctuate betw + and negative which is not desireable .!!!!! therfore f(x) =0!!!

4
UTTARA ·

f"(2∩) ≤ 0

is one conclusion
I donno how 2 proceed further

1
Arshad ~Died~ ·

and pls tell how u got 0
i keep getting 1....
pls tell something apart from the fiitjee solution

1
Arshad ~Died~ ·

physics went too bad.....
so havent still counted my marks....

3
iitimcomin ·

0..

and arshad how much are u expectin???

1
Arshad ~Died~ ·

i have a doubt in the solution...pls try.....

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