2 Answers
Manish Shankar
·2014-05-20 02:04:26
y=(2x-1)/(x-1)
xy-y=2x-1
x(y-2)=y-1
x=(y-1)/(y-2)
So range is R-{2}
- Himanshu Giria thanks sir ...
Upvote·0· Reply ·2014-05-20 09:05:57
Akshay Ginodia
·2014-05-19 21:28:57
R ?
- Himanshu Giria no i too got this bt it is given as : R- {2}
- Anik Chatterjee f(x) can't take the value 2 at any point..but how to do this using calculus?
- Sourish Ghosh Hint: Range of g(x) = 1/x is R - {0}
- Akshay Ginodia damn ..i forgot about that..f(x) will never be equal to 2..f(x) -> 2 as x-> infinity