39
Dr.House
·2009-02-13 08:22:16
this is integral 2 (tan-1x)2
let taninverse x=t
this implies tan t=x
this implies sec2t dt=dx
i.e (1+tan2t)dt=dx
therefore given integral becomes 2t2(1+tan2t)dt
=2t2dt+2t2tan2t dt
2t2tan2dt can be evaluated by using integration by parts.
i think this solves the major part.
39
Dr.House
·2009-02-13 08:22:50
and dude dont forget to change the limits accordingly.
1
ankit mahapatra
·2009-02-13 08:27:48
dude please solve it completely for me.
39
Dr.House
·2009-02-13 08:53:37
ok solving it completely
2t2dt = 2t3/3
∫ 2t2tan2tdt=2t2(∫ (sec2t -1))+∫4t(∫(sec2t -1)) dt
= 2t2tant-2t3/3 +4t tant -4t2
now u give th e limits.
bye the way anyone check if this can be solved by basic formulae of definite integrals.
1
ankit mahapatra
·2009-02-13 21:07:14
you need to integrate 4t tant- 4t2 also.
39
Dr.House
·2009-02-13 21:09:47
ya sorry forgot that. anyways again use integration by parts for 4t tant
39
Dr.House
·2009-02-13 21:10:17
did u get my solution or ot?
by the ways watever i am posting are they coreect or wrong?
1
ankit mahapatra
·2009-02-13 21:14:18
4t log|sect| - ∫4log|sect| how to move from here?
39
Dr.House
·2009-02-13 21:17:20
no idea dude. then i think my approach was wrong
1
Philip Calvert
·2009-02-13 22:34:39
done this before....
see this....
"http://targetiit.com/iit_jee_forum/posts/def_2192.html"
1
Philip Calvert
·2009-02-13 22:37:08
although no pink there but i think that was correct