f(x)=[x]+[-x]
so for integral values of x, f(x)=0
then f'(x)=0.....so hw come it cannot be diff at integral pts....
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2 Answers
Lokesh Verma
·2008-11-02 13:09:22
It is not continuous as the integral points so there is no chance of derivative to exist..
at the other points, the slope is zero!
Rajat Khanduja
·2008-11-03 20:32:44
A composite function can be differentiated if each of its constituting function is derivable at that point.