Mean Value Theorems: For practice.

Q1) Prove that if a function f is continuous on [a,b], differentiable on (a,b) and f(a)=f(b)=0, then for any \alpha\in\mathbb{R}, there exists some c\in (a,b) such that
\alpha f(c)+f'(c)=0

Q2) Let f and g be functions continuous on [a,b], differentiable on (a,b) and f(a)=f(b)=0. Show that there exists a point c\in (a,b), such that
g'(c)f(c)+f'(c)=0

Q3) Let f be continuously differentiable on [a,b] and twice differentiable on (a,b), and suppose that f(a)=f'(a)=f(b)=0. Prove that there exists c\in (a,b) such that f''(c)=0.

29 Answers

1
student ·

@kaymant sir agreed i messed it up

actually i was latexifying proof

i was going as wat was done by gallardo

i forgot to delete my post

1
student ·

kaymant sir is my proof correct ?

in #20 amd # 21 ????

1
raja ·

are α1,α2....αn integers?

66
kaymant ·

@gallardo
The condition given in the problem is correct. Your solution as in #29 has a slight mistake.
h(e2) will have 2a0 as the last term so that 2 comes out as a common factor and we get the condition given.

66
kaymant ·

@Gallardo,
Why should Q9 be wrong? I don't find any trouble and your solution is perfectly okay.

1
Ricky ·

For qs. 7 -

Let g { x } = e - x { f ( x ) + f ' ( x ) + f ' ' ( x ) + ...... f n ( x ) }

Claerly g { x } satisfies all the conditions of Rolle's theorem.

Proof of g { a } = g { b } ---

ln { f ( b ) + f ' ( b ) + ............+ f n ( x )f ( a ) + f ' ( a ) + ............+ f n ( a ) } = b - a ,

or , f ( b ) + f ' ( b ) + ............f ( a ) + f ' ( a ) + ............ = e b - a = e - ae - b

or , e - b { f ( b ) + f ' ( b ) + ............ } = e - a { f ( a ) + f ' ( a ) + ............ }

or , g { b } = g { a } ,

Hence applying Rolle's theorem to g { x } ,

g ' { c } = 0 for some c belonging to ( a , b ) ;

or , - e - x { f ( c ) + f ' ( c ) + ............ } + e - x { f ' ( c ) + f ' ' ( c ) + ............ } = 0

or , e - x ( f ( c ) + f ' ( c ) + ...... + f n ( x ) } = e - x ( f ' ( c ) + f ' ' ( c ) + ...... + f n + 1( c ) }

or , f ( c ) = f n + 1 ( c )

1
Ricky ·

9 > let h { x } =a n ln n + 1 xn + 1 + a n ln n - 1 xn + .......... a 0 ln x1

Clearly , h { 1 } = 0 ,

And h { e 2 } = a n 2 n + 1n + 1 + a n - 1 2 n n + ........... a 01 = 0 , as provided .

hence by rolle's theorem h ' { x } must have a root in ( 1 , e 2 ) .

h ' { x } = { n + 1 } a n ln n { x } / x + ............. + a 0 / x = 0

Clearly , x ≠0 .

So a n ln n { x } + ......... = 0 for some x belonging to ( 1 , e 2 ) .

Kaymant sir , I think the question is wrong .

1
Ricky ·

In qs . 6 > Progressing in the same way as in qs. 5 ,

Take h { x } = tan - 1 [ f { x } ]

Similarly using Lagrange's theorem ,

h ' { c } = h { a } - h { b }b - a , for some c belonging to ( a , b ) ,

f ' { c } 1 + f 2 { c } = tan - 1 [ f { b } ] - tan - 1 [ f { a } ]b - a ,

Noting that f { b } = - ∞ and f { a } = ∞ ,

we get L . H . S = - π / 2 - { π / 2 } b - a = - πb - a ............ 1

Now , Given that f ' { x } + 1 + f 2 { x } ≥ 0 ;

Or , f ' { c } + 1 + f 2 { c } ≥ 0 .........[ as the given equation holds for all x ]

Then , f ' { c }1 + f 2 { c } + 1 ≥ 0.......[ dividing by 1 + f 2 { c } and noting that it cannot be zero ] ...... 2

From 1 and 2 ,

- Πb - a + 1 ≥ 0 ,

or , 1 ≥ Πb - a

or , b - a ≥ Î

1
Ricky ·

YESSSSSSSSSSSSSSS , I GOT NUMBER 5 !!!!!!!!!!

Let h { x } = tan - 1 [ f { x } ]

h { x } is obviously continuos as well as differentiable in the interval ( a , b ) .

Hence , applying Lagrange's theorem ,

h ' { c } = h { b } - h { a } b - a , for some c belonging to ( a , b ) ;

f ' { x } 1 + f 2 { x } ≤ h { b } - h { a }4 , as min. value of { b - a } gives the maximum value of f ' { x }1 + f 2 { x }

Now , h { b } - h { a } = tan - 1 [ f { b } ] - tan - 1 [ f { a } ] < π / 2 - { - π / 2 } = π

So f ' { x }1 + f 2 { x } < π4 < 1

Hence , f ' { x } < 1 + f 2 { x }

Here , I used the fact that difference between two angles in tan inverse form can never exceed π .

1
student ·

that seems to be difficult

i think we have to handle inequalities cleverly and carefully there

1
student ·

dude gallaordo

g(1)-g(0) =definite integration from 0-1 of f(x)=0
[1]

so

g'(c)=0 c→(0,1)

1
student ·

Q-8 let g(x)=∫f(x).dx
applying lmvt theorem on g(x) in interval 0-1 gives result

1
student ·

5 seems to be tan inverse function coming into the picture

trying

66
kaymant ·

@Gallardo,
In any case, –∞ cannot be attained by any variable. Remember that ±∞ do not belong to the set of real numbers.

Something being +∞ is just a way to say that it could be as large a positive real number as you like. The same goes for &ndash∞. In this sense, ∞ is a variable quantity.

1
Ricky ·

Sorry sir , I didn't actually put much emphasis on the continuity and the differentiabilty of g { x } , that's why I thought maybe it could attain minus infinity as well in ( a , b ) , which is a bad mistake .

66
kaymant ·

Q4) Let f be continuous on [0,2] and twice differentiable on (0,2). Show that if f(0)=0, f(1)=1, and f(2)=2, then there is x0 in (0,2) such that f''(x0) = 0.

Q5) Suppose that f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} where b-a\ge 4, is differentiable on (a,b). Prove that there is x_0\in (a,b) such that
f'(x_0)<1+f(x_0)^2.

Q6) Prove that if f is differentiable on (a,b), and if \lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=+\infty, \lim_{x\to b^-}f(x)=-\infty, and
f'(x)+f(x)^2+1\ge 0\quad \forall\ x\in (a,b)
then b-a\ge \pi

66
kaymant ·

@Gallardo
You are right about the second one as well.[1]

@Gallardo,
What if g(x) is unbounded from below?

66
kaymant ·

@RPF,
How can you assume f(x)=e-g(x). First, I again didn't specify f to be positive. Second the condition f(a)=f(b)=0 is not satisfied.

P.S. At least write the question number you are attempting.

1
Ricky ·

Hahaha , the second sum , in this case too , is the continuation of the first one .[1]

2 > Let h { x } = f { x } e g { x }

Apply Rolle's theorem in the interval ( a , b ) ,

[ keeping in mind the continuity and differentiabilty of the function h { x } and noting that

h { a } = h { b } as f { a } = f { b } = 0 ]

We get , for some c belonging to ( a , b ) ;

h ' { c } = 0 ,

or , f ' { c } e g { c } + f { c } g ' { c } e g { c } = 0

But e g { x } > 0 for all g { x } , ............[ it must be mentioned that g { x } is

not unbounded from below ]

So , cancelling out e g { c } gives ,

f ' { c } + f { c } g ' { c } = 0 .

1
student ·

f(x)=e-g(x)
f'(x)=-e-g(x).g'(x)
f'(x)+g'(x)f(x)=0

66
kaymant ·

That's correct [1].

1
Ricky ·

Hmmm , seems I got the first one ,

Let h { x } = f { x } e a x

Clearly , h { a } = h { b } ............[ as f { a } = f { b } = 0 ]

Again , h { x } is diffrentiable as well as continuos in the interval ( a , b ) .

Applying Rolle's theorem , for some c belonging to ( a , b) ,

h ' { c } = 0 ,

or , f ' { c } e a c + a e a c f { c } = 0

As e a c > 0 for all c and a belonging to Real numbers ,

Hence we can cancel out e a c from L . H . S to obtain ,

a f { c } + f ' { c } = 0 .

66
kaymant ·

@RPF
I didn't specify f(x) to be positive.

1
student ·

just first thoughts

in q1
has it to do anything with

?

66
kaymant ·

I have mixed up Rolle's and Lagrange's theorem because giving them separately would give you one direction of thought. But mixing them would force you to exercise your brain more.

1
Ricky ·

Qs, 4 seems to be a continuation of the Qs . 3

If we apply Rolle's theorem to F { x } = f { x } - x , in the interval ( 0 , 2 ) ;

[ which we can , as F { x } is differentiable , continuos , and F { 0 } = F { 2 } in the said interval ]

we get F ' { k } = 0 ,

or , f ' { k } - 1 = 0 for some k belonging to ( 0 , 2 ) .

Next again , applying Rolle's theorem to h { x } = f ' { x } - 1 in the interval ( k , 1 ) or ( 1 , k ) ;

{ as h { 1 } = 0 = h { k } -- which we proved }

We can find a number c belonging to ( 1 , k ) or ( k , 1 ) , such that ,

h ' { c } = 0 ,

or , f ' ' { c } = 0 ,

for some c belonging to ( 1 , k ) or ( k , 1 ) , i . e , to ( 0 , 2 ) .

66
kaymant ·

Q7) Let f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R} be (n+1) times differentiable. Show that for each pair of real numbers a, b, (a<b), such that
\ln\left(\dfrac{\sum_{k=0}^nf^{(k)}(b)}{\sum_{k=0}^nf^{(k)}(a)}\right)=b-a
there is a number c\in(a,b) for which f^{(n+1)}(c)=f(c).

Here, f^{(k)}(x) denotes the k-th order derivative of f; the zeroth order derivative being the function itself.

Q8) Assume that a0, a1, . . ., an are real numbers such that
\dfrac{a_0}{n+1}+\dfrac{a_1}{n}+\ldots +\dfrac{a_{n-1}}{2}+a_n=0
Prove that the polynomial
P(x)=a_0x^n +a_1x^{n-1}+\ldots +a_n
has at least one root in (0,1).

Q9) For real constants a0, a1, . . ., an such that \dfrac{a_0}{1}+\dfrac{2a_1}{2}+\dfrac{2^2a_2}{3}+\ldots +\dfrac{2^{n-1}a_{n-1}}{n}+\dfrac{2^na_n}{n+1}=0
show that the function
f(x)=a_n\ln^n x+a_1\ln^{n-1}x+\ldots +a_2\ln^2x+a_1\ln x +a_0
has at least one root in (1,e2).

Q10) For non-zero a1, a2, . . ., an and for distinct \alpha_1,\ \alpha_2,\ \ldots, \ \alpha_n, prove that the equation
a_1x^{\alpha_1}+a_2x^{\alpha_2}+\ldots +a_nx^{\alpha_n}=0,\quad x\in(0,\infty)
has at most n-1 roots in (0, ∞).

66
kaymant ·

There goes Q3) demolished. [1]

1
Ricky ·

Thanks to Anant sir for providing a few good qs. -

Last one seems a bit easy .

If we apply Rolle's theorem to f { x } ,

then we get that f ' { k } = 0 for some k belonging to ( a , b ) .

Now we apply Rolle's theorem for F { x } = f ' { x } in the interval ( a , k ) .

It's given that f ' { a } = 0 , and we proved that f ' { k } = 0 .

So F { a } = F { k } , also as f is twice differentiable , so F is also differentiable as well as continuos .

Hence , F ' { c } = 0 for some c belonging to ( a , k ) , i . e , belonging to ( a , b ) .

Or , f ' ' { c } = 0 .

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