11
Mani Pal Singh
·2009-02-21 10:38:35
SANKAR put 1/x =t now the ques becomes limx>infinity sint/t
so the answer is 0
33
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-02-21 10:28:28
where its wrong...
definition of limit:
as x approaches a certain quantity... (always keeping itself in the domain of the function....) then if f(x) approaches a certain fixed quantity.. then that quantity approached by f(x) is called limit of function.
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:29:34
sry abhi for talking hindi dat much badly.
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:30:33
but cos(∞) is not approaching a particular quantity
11
Mani Pal Singh
·2009-02-21 10:30:58
the concept is
ANY NUMBER DIVIDED BY INFINITY IS ZERO
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:31:46
then wat is the no in this case
11
Mani Pal Singh
·2009-02-21 10:31:59
REMEMBER THAT COS X LIES BETWEEN -1 TO 1
THERE SHOULD BE NO CONFUSION
33
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-02-21 10:32:36
@shankara...
but cos(x)/x approaches a fixed quantity... zero...
1
Harry Potter
·2009-02-21 10:34:18
hey priyam congrats yaar.........
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:34:34
then i can give u a limit can u find this for me.
limx→0(sin(1/x)/1/x)=
33
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-02-21 10:35:06
we should talk tommorow on this topic...
today i think my mind is sleeping for an hour...
Byee talk to u all tommorow... [1]
1
skygirl
·2009-02-21 10:35:32
priyam i think... x/x^2 undefined for x->0. [12]
1
Philip Calvert
·2009-02-21 10:35:48
@ sankara answer to ur que ∞
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:36:32
priyam the graph also gives ur explanation.
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:37:55
yes philip u r rite can u pls explain.
in this qn also wont sin(∞)=undefined
11
Mani Pal Singh
·2009-02-21 10:39:56
REMEMBER THAT COS X AS WELL AS SINX LIES BETWEEN -1 TO 1
THERE SHOULD BE NO CONFUSION
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:43:00
mani ur rong da. philip is rite.
33
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-02-21 10:43:55
sorry.. i had to go to sleep.. i forgot that... talk to u all, later
1
Philip Calvert
·2009-02-21 10:47:07
no maybe i am wrong even now i think it should have been 0 idont know why i wrote inf there [7] sorry but i really think answer is 0
11
Mani Pal Singh
·2009-02-21 10:48:20
priyam ur ques is diff as limx>0 sinx could be written as x
but not in ur case
11
Mani Pal Singh
·2009-02-21 10:48:49
clear me if u think i am wrong
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:50:07
if u have some confusion may be the defn of limits can help u.
if it is not helping then draw a graph using a software
3
msp
·2009-02-21 10:59:25
microsoft math 3.0 as abi suggested
33
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-02-21 21:28:56
@shankara...
Lim xsin(1/x) =0
x→0
Lim cos(x) =0
x→0 x
apply sandwitch theorem to both..
39
Dr.House
·2009-02-21 22:07:57
hey guys use expansion of sinx and cosx and answer is at your feet.