prove it
i don't have neither solution nor answer
Q
Solve \lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{sin\frac{1}{x}}{\frac{1}{x}}
-
UP 0 DOWN 0 0 10
10 Answers
The answer is that it does not exist....
This was discussed on the forum long time back..
sir then please solve this 1 please
\lim_{x\rightarrow 0,y\rightarrow 0}(x^{2}+y^{2})sin(\frac{1}{xy})
the answer given is 0
I think Q1 will exist and it will be equal to 0
The question can be written as
xsin(1/x)
0*Sin∞
-1<Sinx<1
Therefore
0*Sinx = 0
Therefore
=0
the simple solution of virang fits and also solve 2nd question posted by me[1]
I think the second also can be done by the same method
It is (0)*Sin∞ = 0 proof as before
for (1) what we can just think is that sine gives a finite value in the numerator whereas the denominator tends to ∞....this makes it finite upon infinite....that becomes zero!
........simple thinking!!!