solve it

let f(x)=x
then f(x - (1/x))=x-(1/x)

so now
∫lim a to b f(x) dx = i

changes to

∫lim a to b x dx = i

(b^2-a^2)/2=i

and
∫lim a to b f(x - (1/x))
=∫lim a to b x-(1/x)
=(x^2)/2-lnx|lim a to b
=(b^2-a^2)/2 + ln(a/b)

now (b^2-a^2)/2=i (from above)

so the answer is

i+ln(b/a)

what if f(x) = lnx ........ dude arshad u have to generalise the ans. for any function
f(x) ...

but mine is an assumption.........try doing it with any other function and please do tell me if u get the same answer............ and shriya what is the answer to this question........?
and my sole motive was to asume something which was easily integrable.......