PLZ ANSWER

1 Answers

106

Asish Mahapatra ·2010-02-07 21:29:54

the electric field just after 2 is -âˆž.. This suggests taht the charge at 2 must be negative.. (as it is attractive force and râ†’0)

So the particle at 2 has negative charge..

Further electric field has become positive as well..
suggesting that the particle at 1 is positively charged (magnitude greater tahn that of 2)

√ √ || {} [] () → ~ ^ x x x → → ln log lg lim lim cos sin tan cot arcsin arccos arctan

∫ ∫ ∫ ∫ ∫ ∬ ∬ ∬ ∬ ∬ ∭ ∭ ∭ ∭ ∭ ⨌ ⨌ ⨌ ⨌ ⨌

∑ ∑ ∑ ∑ ∑ ∮ ∮ ∮ ∮ ∮ ∏ ∏ ∏ ∏ ∏ ∐ ∐ ∐ ∐ ∐

+ - × ÷ ± ∓ = ∪ ∩ ≠ ∼ ≈ ∅ ∀ ∃ ∈ ∋ ∝ ≤ ≥ ≃ ≅ ≡ < > ≪ ≫ ⊂ ∉ ⊃ ⊆ ⊇ ⇒ ⇐ ⇔ ⇒ ⇐ ⇔ ⇑ ⇓ ⇕ → ← ↔ → ← ↔ ↑ ↓ ↕ ↖ ↗ ↘ ↙ ↪ ↩ ⇀ ↼ ⇁ ↽

° ∂ ∞ α β γ δ θ λ μ ν ξ π ρ σ φ ω ε ƒ κ τ υ Γ Δ Λ Σ Π Ω