39well, avni i am getting the answer as b. is it right?
14 Answers
62first of all see the first statement
F(1) = 0∫pi/2 1 dx = pi/2
now the second or 3rd statement will be true if the integral is such tat
f(7) is someting like pi/4
also the fourth one will be tue if f(2) is somethign like ... (√6-√2)/2
1ne proof 4 that ,
coz obsrvtn metjhd is too crude n mite not work in long terms
39well, then u need to expand sinnx and that gets to away from the time.
or even otherwise same can be wriittn by converting into cos,
@avni: most of the reduction formulae sums are done in this way only (atleast most of which i have done)
1one method
u can write it as
cosec^2x (sin^2nx)
nw integrate by parts
39well in 3rd step in brackets its 2 sinnxcosnxsinxcosx . we will not have each raised to power of 2
11mera dimag shayad ghaas charne gaya hai. pls koi batao kahaan galti hai.