1OHHHHH!!!
Manipal Then how u are applying them in case of planets???
Experts this is very easy so please dont tell d answer.....but lets see
x+iy=0.....................1
x=-iy
x/y=-i
(x/y)2=(-i)2
(x/y)2=-1
x2=-y2
x=iy
==>x-iy=0....................2
arent one and 2 contradicting???? IS THERE ANY MISTAKE????
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36 Answers
1
1yup......................
gow will u solve
S=10+102+103...........
here r is 10........so -1<r<1 is not valid over here............
SO I DO HAVE AN OBJECTION....
1yup......................
gow will u solve
S=10+102+103...........
here r is 10........so -1<r<1 is not valid over here............
SO I DO HAVE AN OBJECTION....
11wats ur solution to this 1
do solve it u will get to know ur folly
POST UR SOLUTION[1]
1One more misleading question...
According to Newtons law of gravitaion
F is inversely propotional to r...
But when ur forefinger and middle finger are in touch with each other , wont the force of attraction be infinity!! (1/0=∞),
Pls dont try to answer in mathematical sense - undefined..
U can say it is infinite in physics -sometimes(like timeperiod of pendulum)
11One more misleading question...
According to Newtons law of gravitaion
F is inversely propotional to r...
But when ur forefinger and middle finger are in touch with each other , wont the force of attraction be infinity!! (1/0=∞),
Pls dont try to answer in mathematical sense - undefined..
U can say it is infinite in physics -sometimes(like timeperiod of pendulum)
newton law of gravitation is only valid 4 ponit charges
1Guys my question is buried deep inside ur progressions.....someone point out the "correct" mistake...
11MANIPAL.............its not r<1..........the condition is r≠1..........hehehe
@akand i said |r|<1
=> -1< r <1
so this is perfect
do u have any objection[7]
11they r assumed to be point charges
remember shell theorem na!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
1Ok...Why not in this case?? Even ur fingers are solid structure like planets...U can apply the Gravitational law here!!
1Translation of first statement required....
Assertion 2 : Not exactly
1STRING Theory????????????????????
One more new thing..K. cud u explain @skygirl
11#8 But ppl. he is making mistake in first step itself rite?? dividing by 0..
he is not dividing it
1ye kya kar rahe ho akand
last line kayde se root lo na......
either put | | or take ±
11sorry akand
not fooled by it
x+iy=0.....................1
x=-iy
x/y=-i
(x/y)2=(-i)2
(x/y)2=-1
x2=-y2
x=iy
==>x-iy=0....................2
please explain me the bolded thing
i will explain u the contradiction!!!!![1]
1I am adding one more misleading question.. Note only 11th graders are advised to do this Q., 12th graders pls be QUIET!! 11=1 22=2+2
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"
"
x2=x+x+x+ ............. x times
Differentiating both sides.. u get 2x on LHS and 1+1+1+......x times on RHS therefore 2x=x 2=1.. But how this is possible?? K.. let x be less than or equal to 2 and greater than 0
1in fact x & y both are zero sriraghav ....
so we can say that the question is in a mess......
or we can say that x/y exists "imaginarily" finitely
1But ppl. he is making mistake in first step itself rite?? dividing by 0..
1yes yes guys..........and sriraghav....hws 33=3+3+3??? and isnt this question ther in a forum
1YES YES GUYSSSS...............u r very smart.............this was just for fun......
1ok one more.............
Sn=1+1+1+1+1.....n
since this is a GP....
Sn=a/1-r
=1/1-1
=undefined.......
so 1+1+1+!= undefined?????? or is it n???? hehe
1In sixth step.. u have to take both + and -.. and not only one thing.....and infirst step u said that it is equal to 0!! so imaginary part is zero.. so u cannot divide x by y(which is 0)..
1K.. i hav edited the question, the mistake which leads is a very basic one...