1oops yes thanks
and sorry for asking a dumb que..
two minutes of thought should have done it but im just too lazy at times
thanx again !!
Find the velocity of fluid which flows through the small hole.( find velocity v , with respect to l & h).
Given that whole pipe moves along the given axis & length of pipe is l (part of it containing fluid is h).
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10 Answers
62I am not 100% convinced.. but more or less I am..
the water column when treated as a rod...
Acceleration towards the center is mω2R = mω2(l-h/2)=N
because normal reaction is the only force acting on the body in the radial direction.
N=P.A (P is force per unit area. A is area of cross section)
and m=Ïh.A
thus hAÏω2(l-h/2)=PA
So pressure is given by
P = hÏω2(l-h/2)
Now there will be 2 components of the velocity..
one radial.. another tangential.
The resultant will give the velocity.
1this thing about water reminds me...
can someone explain why a hollow sphere filled with water behaves as a mathematical pendulum and the one filled with ice as a physical pendulum... [7][7][7]
if no one sees it here i'll start a new thread..
62what's a mathematical pendulum!! :O
hearing that for the first time :(
1lolzz
i also read it first time when I did lol [4]
arrey simple wala jisme linear motion lete hai
physical ka ulta hi hoga na jab uske sath compare kiya hai toh
1ha ha...right philip! :)
a sphere filled with ice behaves as a physical pendulum because ice is solid...and moves, as well as rotates (wid respect to observer on ground), with the rod. (see pic ..A and B are on the water/ice body) ..
thus, in case of ice, the rotation of the ice body is also to be considered..
while if there is water, its centre of mass can be taken and calculations can be done as if it were a simple pendulum..
hope u get it.....
1
3ITS JUST LIKE THE LIQUID COMIN OUT OF A TANK BOTTOM BUT HERE INSTEAD OF g...
we have varied acc..............
okie lets take segments dx of liquid!!!!!!!!!
F=∫dmw^2x= ∫Ïdxw2x ........
Ïw2X2/2 ....integrate from L-h to L.............
hence now u know net force ................
so pressure diff*A = net force!!!!!!
A is area of crossection!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
let us take area of crossection of hole as a!!!!!!!!!!
av = AV.......[V is velocty of surface of liquid]
V =av/A ........if we take a<<A ..V=0!!!!!!!!
PRESSURE DIIF+0 = 1/2 Ï v 2 [bernaulli bhiyya ka theorm[3])
so u cAN find it as we hav found pressure diff earlier!!!!!!!!
get v!!!!!!!!!
nishant bhiyya ans. check keejie
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3but bernoullis theorem cant be applied to compressed fluids.in this case wont the fluid gets some wat compressed near the opening
3SANKARA THIS IS BASICALLY CONSERVATION OF ENERGY IN LIQUIDS!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
U CAN RELATE IT THRU WATER FALLING DOWN FROM ORIFACE OF TANK!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
