8 Answers
RAY
·2009-10-01 10:15:26
cos x =1 ka graph.....so (0,nÎ )
another justification is that in (0,Î ) tan x > sin x
so we can have only the points (nÎ ,0) as the graph..
eureka123
·2009-10-01 10:32:49
sinx=tanx
=>sinx(1-1/cosx)=0
=> sinx=0 or cosx=1
=>x=nπ or x=2mπ+0=2mπ
=>x=0,Ï€,2Ï€... or x=0,2Ï€,4Ï€...