cos {x} cannot be equal to 0 as pi/2 >1 and 1≥{x}≥0
17 Answers
no palani..
It should go along the Y axis to infinity on both sies
I mean your red lines should be infinitely big on either sides
no this is not closed
Palani.. Your graph should have extended till infinity on both sides
grandmaster and eureka.. I never said that cos x =0
I only quoted your statement grandmaster.
What palani has done is exactly correct..
it will be defined for the interval [o,1) and the ans would be cos 0 =1
nis bhaiya ,ye baat samaj nahi aaya ki cos{x}=0 hone pe tan{x} kaise define hoga
palani you are right.
but these will be lines parallel to the y axis and not points :)
there are 2 solutoins
a)sin{x}=0
b)cos{x}=0
you have made a small mistake..
this one s goo bhaiya,plz check my analysis
tan{x}=sin{x}/cos{x}
now the given expression becomes
sin{x}/cos{x}=six{x}
hence
the function is define everywhere except where cos{x}=0
there are 2 solutoins
a)sin{x}=0
b)cos{x}=0
now we hav to just see the points corresponing to the above relation