One for gravitation

Point-masses of mass m are at rest at the corners of a regular n-gon, as illustrated in the figure for n = 6.

How does the system move if only gravitation acts between the bodies? How much time elapses before the bodies collide if n = 2, 3 and 10? Examine the limiting case when n ≫ 1 and m = M0/n, where M0 is a given total mass.

26 Answers

1
Rohan Ghosh ·

is the answer to the last part = √((π3R3)/2GM0ln(2n/π)) ?

9
Celestine preetham ·

sir with reference to #18

i had missed a pi
so for n=1000 ratio is close to pi

for n= something very great wont it tend to pi

in this can we have an approximation ??

66
kaymant ·

The case n\gg 1 is interesting. As the number n of point masses increase, Mn increases even if the total mass of the system is fixed at M0, i.e. m=M0/n. So seemingly from our last result the time of collapse should tend to zero. That is, the more finely a given amount of matter is spread around a circle, the shorter the time it takes for it to collapse under its own gravitational attraction. However, there is no point in examining a continuous matter distribution spread an arbitrary thin line; the extent of the matter in the transverse, i.e. radial direction cannot be neglected.

66
kaymant ·

To finally conclude the post.
From the symmetry of the configuration and the initial conditions, it is easy to see that all bodies will fall towards the center of the n-gon with the same non-uniform acceleration. The structure maintains its initial shape (but the size reduces)
The net force on any one particle, say the n-th one due to all the others, is directed towards the center of the circle in which the polygon is inscribed, and is given by (as in #3)
F=G\dfrac{m^2}{r^2}\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\dfrac{1}{4\sin(k\pi/n)}
when the distance of each is r from the center.
This force is identical to the gravitation attraction of fixed body at the center whose mass is
M_n=\dfrac{m}{4}\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\dfrac{1}{\sin(k\pi/n)}
The values of the masses Mn (in units of m) can be evaluated for all n as
M2=0.25,
M3=.58
M4=.96
......
M10=3.86
......
However, there is no closed form. (in fact the summation cannot be written as an integral, since it diverges).
The time T of the collapse from an initial distance R onto a central mass Mn can be considered as half the period Te for a degenerate elliptical orbit of semi-major axis R/2. The period Tc of a circular orbit of radius R can be calculated directly from the dynamics of circular motion as
T_c=\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{4\pi^2}{GM_n}\right)R^3}
But according to Kepler's third law,
\left(\dfrac{T_e}{T_c}\right)^2=\left(\dfrac{R/2}{R}\right)^3
Thus, finally, we obtain the time of collapse as
\boxed{T=\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{R^3}{8GM_n}}}

9
Celestine preetham ·

sorry i dint mention that

R is changing and i took R initial ∞ to make things simpler

1
Rohan Ghosh ·

one thing celestine ,

you wrote

vdv=KdR/R2

but then we have

v2/2=k[1/x - 1/R ]

where v=-dx/dt

but you wrote

v2/2=k/R !!!

9
Celestine preetham ·

@ #18 yes i missed a pi (typing hurriedly rest is correct)

1
metal ·

Rohan, I think, you've taken the limits wrong.
For k varying from 1 to n-1, the limits would be either (0 to (n-1)Ï€/n )
if you take the lower values; or (π/n to π) if you take the upper values.

Kaymant Sir, I hope I'm correct.

1
Rohan Ghosh ·

i didnt do that transition

cosec(kπ/n)=n* (1/n)cosec(kπ/n) = nπ/n∫(n-1)π/ncosecθdθ/π

celestine missed a pi

1
metal ·

If k=1Σn-1Cosec(kπ/n) =A

I'm getting the time as t=√{(R3nπ2)/(GmA)}

{ Of course I might be wrong------- :-D)

66
kaymant ·

Celestine and rohan:
How did you get the transition
\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\csc\left(\dfrac{k\pi}{n}\right)\longrightarrow n \int_{\pi/n}^{(n-1)\pi/n}\csc\theta \ \mathrm{d}\theta
as n→∞?
In fact there is a vast difference. For n = 1000, the left side is approximately 4477.59 while the right side evaluates to 12912.3.

66
kaymant ·

Actually, you cant. That series diverges. So you cannot determine the sum.

1
metal ·

Help me find the sum k=1Σn-1 Cosec(kπ/n) for n->∞

Rohan said it is easy-------- but I haven't been able to figure it out yet.

66
kaymant ·

you mean each particle attracted towards the center by a mass nm?

1
Rohan Ghosh ·

celestine your calculation of time is wrong

1
Rohan Ghosh ·

this problem is easy exceept for a cosec series coming in the way .. :(

we can do it for n->∞ easily but for general n it is needed to solve it ..

for n=10 we know the values of sin18 ,sin36 sin54(cos36) and the others

3
iitimcomin ·

maybe .////

9
Celestine preetham ·

reason why sir posted n>>1 instead of n→∞ is that at n→∞ , T =0

so however wen n>>1 the abv aproximations yield a definite ans

3
iitimcomin ·

nope im not gettin tried all sorts of things but i feel our approach shud be to express each cosec as

sum thing - sumthinggelse ... :P ..... thatz wat i was trying to do ended up nowhere ........ anyways we have sir to turn to if we get nothing .....

9
Celestine preetham ·

even i was wasting time finding summation of cosec series but cudnt reach that

see second part of Q hes asking when n>>1 i jus took it infinity to make ans simpler

and i dont know a method to simplify that cosec series

post it if possible

3
iitimcomin ·

but cel ... its not given n --> infinity ....... we have to try and do summation of that cosec thing which is wat i was trying to do ................

9
Celestine preetham ·

9
Celestine preetham ·

9
Celestine preetham ·

sir uploading ans

sorry i was wrong first time
dint put much thought before

66
kaymant ·

okay metal, what about the time?

1
metal ·

I think the particles will all move towards the centre. At any instant, the force on one particle is given by Summation Of { Gm2 /(4x2 Sin(k[pi]/n) } ;{ k varying from 1 to n-1}; towards the centre, where x is the distance of the particles from the centre.
The particles will therefore move such that they always form the
n-gon, which keeps on becoming smaller and smaller.

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