since n is infinitely large,n=n+1(approx)....again, 1/n is negligible....so take it 0...nd u will be able 2 solve d problm :)
Anirban Mondal HOW? PLEASE EXPLAIN THIS
Upvote·0· Reply ·Jun 16 '12 at 23:30Anik Chatterjee couldnt get ,,....if n=n+1....En+1-En=En-En=0....!!