Now that you mention it, pls put x=1 [1]
You'll get
0- 2 x π/2 = π/2
=> - π = π/2
=> 1= -2
=> 3= 0
Amit's question is wrong [4]
Now that you mention it, pls put x=1 [1]
You'll get
0- 2 x π/2 = π/2
=> - π = π/2
=> 1= -2
=> 3= 0
Amit's question is wrong [4]
yup ani Q seems incorrect i will try to post the soln next week :)
Arey Vishal. How will u post solution for wrong question? [7] [9]
Amit, did you see the question I gave you in my earlier reply? [4]
Dearest Amit,
See my challenge to you:
http://targetiit.com/iit_jee_forum/posts/colours_again_961.html
Answer this question.
Also answer skygirl's challenge
http://targetiit.com/iit_jee_forum/posts/question_for_eureka_p_2009_iit_jee_question_p_1415.html
Answer that one too
This is the least we dumbo jumbos at targetiit can do to you, in return for your beautiful question [4]
Bhaiyyah, if this question was solve for x, then how do we do it?
this is such a brilliant q that i can disprove put x =1/2 u get -Π/6≠Π/2
great q keep more of these coming
really learning new things
bring 2 sin-1 x on oth side
take sine on both sides
1 - x = cos 2 sin-1x
1 - x = 1 - 2x2
x = 0 ( 1/2 doesnt satisfy inverse cond)
sub in org eq it wont
always u need to verify inverse trigo ans cos ull be neglecting range of inv fn wile solvin
not for further discussions but that the doubt has been settled :)
How dare you ask such a question[16]. He is the one and only amitp91. The only user who doesn't know how to use targetiit.com and hence says the website is useless. That's his aukad and your's is not near enough to him to question him. If u do question him, you have to face the consequences. [16][16]