if A=B=pi/2 what is tan (A+B)=-infinity(formulae) it should be zero
why
1solve this sum
if
tan(45+y/2)=(tan(45+x/2)3
then prove that
siny/sinx=3+sin2x/1+3sin2x
33Yes it is indeterminate but zero ...in lay man terms also
because in denominator theres ∞2
and numerator ∞
and both 'similar infinity'
13Tan(A+B) = (SinA.CosB+CosA.SinB) / (CosA.CosB-SinA.SinB)
now dividing it by CosA.CosB in numerator n denominator, we get .........(#)
Tan(A+B) = (TanA + TanB) / (1-TanA.TanB)
here... observe d statement (#)... we can divide d expression wid CosA.CosB provided neither A nor B is equal to (2n+1)Î /2 ...
hence we cannot use dat formula for d case when A=B=(2n+1)Î /2 ...
[1]
62are u trying to put ∞ in this formula
2∞/1-∞2
this is also zero then..
there is a slight mistake here....
1) THis is not zero.. this is indeterminate... (infinity by infinity can take any value)
2) THe limit as you take a to pi/2 will be zero..
3ok tx philip.i thought that it shud be infinity.so i opposed priyam.however its cleared now.
33where... those formulas are for reals...
But as i have said mathematics don't capture infinity but gives a hint if can understand it else ∞ is bakwaas in the eyes of our mathematics..
33in numerator and denominator both reaches ∞ with same nature (both due to tan as x→pi/2) and in denominator power of ∞ is higher :P so zero
33;)
are u trying to put ∞ in this formula
2∞/1-∞2
this is also zero then..
