Is it 3816 ?
\textrm{Let }f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow \mathbb{N} \textrm{be a function such that }f(n+1)>f(n) ; f(f(n))=3n\textrm{ for all n}
\textrm{Evaluate }f(2001)
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6 Answers
I think I got the solution. However, Will you explain it a bit more lucidly.
http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?t=328608#
Solution :( )
Note that f(x)>x
( because if we let f(x)=x we dont get f(f(x))= 3x , and f is nothing but increasing function of natural number,so at the moment we realize f(1)≥2 we get f(x) > x )
What if f(1) >2 ?
let f(1) = p (p≥3)
f(f(1)) = 3 or f(p) = 3 which contradicts f(x)>x hence f(1) = 2
so f(f(1))=f(2) = 3
f(f(2))=f(3) = 6
f(f(6)) = f(9) = 18 using induction we conclude f(3n)= 2* 3n
f(f(3n)) =f(2*3n) = 3n+1
there are exactly 3n-1 numbers in Domain and in the range as well (in between 3n
and2* 3n)
As f is increasing function obviously f(3n+k) = 2*3n+ k ;(0<k<3n)
Now f(f(3n+k)) = f(2*3n+k)= 3n+1+ 3k
f(2001) = f(2* 36+ 543)=37+ 3* 543 = 3816
Okay.. Try this for better written solution---2nd sln there is similar #4
http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?t=390679&p2249032#p2249032
the qstn is a given from advanced problems in algebra by titu andreescu.... quite difficult ...