nishant bhai garland mein (n-1)!/2 hota hai naa?
A permutation of n objects is a 1-1 function from A={1,2,.................n} to itself.If a1,a2,a3.......ak are n distinct elements of A such that a function f sends a1 to a2,a2 to a3 , .......... ak-1- to ak and ak to a1, then a1,a2,..ak are said to form a cycle of length k. A permutaiton is chosen randomly from set of all permutations of set A={1,2,....n}
Q1 The probablity that chosen permuttion is a cycle such that 1-->2-->3-->...........(n-1)-->1 ??
Q2 Let a1,a2,...ak ,b1,b2...bk ε A be such that ai 's are distinct and bj 's are distinct.The
probablity that chosen permutation sends ai -------> bi for i=1,2,........k
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7 Answers
I feel a bit sad when people (I mean the question setters) directly copy funda from higher maths or physics just to create tough looking questions..
THis is a rip off of Permutation groups!
If i am awake... and thinking already..
1) I din read this part carefully..
we want 1->2>3.. >n-1>1
so there is only one permutation that does that.
total there are n! permutations.
so the answer will be 1/n!
2) (n-2k)! / n!
is this the answer?
i can call u "bhai" naa?? typing bhaiya takes 1s more.
just tryin to save time
sir Q1 ka ans mera bhi vai aa raha hai........par book mein answer 0 hai[11][7]