functions

if f(x) =1 + ax (a≠0) is the inverse of itself then what is the value of a?

7 Answers

62
Lokesh Verma ·

f(x) = 1+ax

f(f(x))=1

because f(f-1x) = x

but f-1x=fx

1+a(1+ax) = x

1+a+(a2-1)x =0 for all x

hence a+1=0 ... so a=-1

also (a2-1) = 0 so a=±1

but common to both is a=-1

1
Shriya ·

sir i am not getting the solution
how did you get f(f(x))=1 f(f-1(x))=x not 1

62
Lokesh Verma ·

oh sorry my mistake :)

corrected the mistake above..

1
Shriya ·

(1+a )+(a2-1)x=0

so we have (a+1){1+(a-1)x}=0

so a=-1 or x= 1/(1-a)
what do we get from the second one .Do we have to ignore it??

62
Lokesh Verma ·

yes we ignore it becasue we have to find an a for which x=1/(1-a) is true for all x which is not possible

1
JOHNCENA IS BACK ·

sir plz see ur chatbox

1
parnika -1 ·

let fx=ax+b/cx=d, x is not = -d/c . if d=-a show tht f(fx)=x is an identity .?? im nt gettin wht approach shud be applied

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