No idea...
10 Answers
one prooof:
x = ln(ii)
x = i ln(i)
i √-1
x = (i/2) ln(-1)
ln(-1) = i(pi)?? (how?)
x = (i . i . (pi)) /2
x = -(pi)/2
ii= e-pi/2 = .28 (if i remember correctly!)
now tell what is the mistake!
U will get some reference on the net saying that this iis the actual value..
But this is not!!!
I suppose you must have seen that your proof is correct by now, but nevertheless:
e^(i*pi) = -1 (De Moivre's Theorem)
So ln(-1) = i*pi
Thus, as you say, i^i = e^(-pi/2), which is indeed 0.2079 .
Pratyush
e^(i*pi) = -1
yahan thoda sa locha hai...
like it could even be
e^(i*3pi) = -1
so then, the answer would be
e^(-3pi/2), which is not 0.2079 .
infact ii is e(2n+1)pi for all integers N
So it is indeterminate!! it is something like 0/0 can take so many values!
what is this!!
baap re!!!
hmm
but i think i understand this proof
Not this second part but.