39
Dr.House
·2009-10-15 12:32:30
ii)
the originator has (n-1) chioces and all (n-1) others have (n-2) choices.
so no:of ways it can be done is
(n-1)(n-2)(n-1)
total no: of ways =(n-1)n
so probability = [(n-2)/(n-1)](n-1)
1
Arshad ~Died~
·2009-10-15 13:00:15
thank u b555....
wow its the first time someone replied correctly to a question at
01:02 am....
:-)
39
Dr.House
·2009-10-15 13:29:33
time never matters if u have the knowledge :)
1
Arshad ~Died~
·2009-10-15 13:39:21
thats very correctly said dude...
1
Arshad ~Died~
·2009-10-18 03:34:09
everyone forgot the first one???
106
Asish Mahapatra
·2009-10-18 03:53:29
i think (i) is zero because for n repetitions of the rumour, there need to be n+1 people without any people getting repeated.
So there is no case that the rumour will be repeated n times without being repeated to any person
Consider a simple ex.
there are 5 people
1-->2 --> 3-->4 -->5 so without repetition of people there are 4 repetitions of the rumour i.e. (n-1)
So the prob. is zero
if u count 5-->1 as a repetition then look below
1
Arshad ~Died~
·2009-10-18 04:02:45
nishant sir,kaymant sir or prophet sir can u pls justify asish's answer because i dont have the answer to this question
pls
106
Asish Mahapatra
·2009-10-18 04:03:34
oh.. yes i assumed that since 1 knows it, it will be considered as a repetition.
In that case, it will be (n-1)(n-1)(n-3)!(n-1)n
this is bcz, the first person has (n-1) ways so has the second person but then the third has (n-3) ways and this keeps on decreasing by one
1
Arshad ~Died~
·2009-10-18 04:07:05
this ones got me too confused......
62
Lokesh Verma
·2009-10-18 04:29:12
I go with the first answer of asish.. which is zero..
To be mreo clear we need the question to mention what "repeat" means.. To me what asish has doen there makes a lot of sense..