2 min DI

i m able to see it

neways then see this-

http://is.gd/cfY9k

wow man

i bet this guy isnt in 11 th or 12th

and ya ans is 0

but its much simpler .....both fuction r inverse of each oder....so ?

Consider ,

Domain - { - 1 , 1 }

Range - { 0 , 1 }

Now , consider the other integral ,

Domain - { - ∞ , 1 }

Range - { - ∞ , ∞ }

The domain of the inverse funtion should be equal to the range of the parent function and vice - versa ,

and this holds for any function having an inverse .

But , here that doesn't hold . So are these functions inverses of each other ?

No . Actually , the inverse of .

Hence , the argument given by Che is not correct .

Well....

fof^-1(x) = x [My favourite property :P]

=> (1 - (f^-1(x))⁴ )¹⁷ = |x|
=> 1 - (f^-1(x))⁴ = |x|⁷
=> (1 - |x|⁷)^1/4 = f^-1(x)

I guess he has a point. This property must hold for all functions and their inverses, and for it to hold here x must be non-negative as the LHS is also non-negative.