FROM
I2 WE GET x=1+a
I3 WE GET x2=1+a2
NOW THE QUESTION IS URS
THE ANSWER IS 0
find the no of functions such that
I1=0∫1f(x) dx = 1,
I2=0∫1xf(x) dx =a and
I3=0∫1x2f(x) dx =a2
is
a)1
b)2
c)0
d)infinite
plz provide suitable arguments and not stray answers
FROM
I2 WE GET x=1+a
I3 WE GET x2=1+a2
NOW THE QUESTION IS URS
THE ANSWER IS 0
Solved by bhatt sir here..........http://targetiit.com/iit_jee_forum/posts/integration_3164.html
I did not get teh logic of your proof..
Trust me.. I have met very good guys at mathematics but not many of the quality of Prophet sir.. So dont worry about him being far better than you :)
NO SIR
THERE IS NO QUESTION ABOUT THAT
HE IS limx-->∞ (FAR)X TIMES BETTER THAN ME
PLEASE DON'T INSULT HIM BY COMPARING WITH ME [2]
but i thought i gave a logical proof
I2 WE GET x=1+a
I did not understand how!
is there a very simple thing that i am missing?