use leibnitz theorem and then y' = 0 . then find y2 for which it's > 0 . that's all no ?
if f(X) = x + 0∫(1xy2+x2y)f(y)dy
f(x) has minima at
a)x=9/8
b)x=-9/8
c)x=0
d)x=1
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6 Answers
voldy
·2009-03-26 07:34:49
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-03-26 07:42:31
no..not only that...
if u do this... u will get x=-(∫y2 f(y)dy)/(2∫yf(y)dy) ..limit fro 0 to 1
Grandmaster
·2009-03-26 08:33:00
@priyam,arrey "tum chalte chalte questons ka matlab to janta hoga"(Y.p).sir's
Abhishek Priyam
·2009-03-26 08:35:56
haan han pata hai...
chalte chalte ek chota sawal bana lo to maja aa jaega... :P