It's 0.
Hardik Sheth given integral is greater than pie/(pie)square from o to pie.so greater than 1 of course
Upvote·0· Reply ·2013-02-23 10:55:23Hardik Sheth given integral is also less than ln 3.
\hspace{-16}$If $\bf{\mathbb{I} = \int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\pi}{\pi^2-\cos^2 (x)}dx}$, Then $\bf{[\;\mathbb{I}\; ]=}$
It's 0.