consider
limh→0+ f(x+h) - f(x) /h and
limh→0+ f(x) - f(x-h) /h
here as x-h,x,x+h AP
f(x)=rf(x-h) and
f(x+h)= rf(x)
limh→0+ f(x+h) - f(x) /h = (r-1)[fx/h] ........1
limh→0+ f(x) - f(x-h) /h = (r-1)[fx/h]/r ............2
but r ≈1 (note f continuous)
hence r in denominator wont matter at all in ...2
ie limh→0+ f(x+h) - f(x) /h == limh→0+ f(x) - f(x-h) /h
== limh→0- f(x+h) - f(x) /h
ie LHD = RHD hence differentiable
Find all continuous functional equations f:R→R+ , such that if x,y and z are succesive in A.P., f(x), f(y) and f(z) are succesive terms in GP
-
UP 0 DOWN 0 1 38
38 Answers
haha.. dont worry a part of the proof that i gave is not in syllabus..
but may be i messed up somewhere... prophet sir will have to find mistakes :(
atleast here not many ppl will understand the proof beyond the first 3-4 steps..
priyam it is not mentioned that the function is differentiable or not ..!
waw priyams work is real elegant apart frm that a trivial solution f(x) = const also arises which was assumed nonzero in priyams sol due to division
well celestine.. priyam has assumed that it is differentiable which is not the case..!
hmm celestine if this is your proof then you are saying indirectly that every continuous function is differentiable !!
you have written
f(x)=rf(x-h)
and
f(x+h)=f(x)/r
but wont this be valid for every continuous function when r≈1 !!!
acc to your proof .
(r-1)g(x)=((r-1)/r)g(x) as r≈1
but
as r≈1
we have let r=1+h h->0
thus LHS = hg(x)
R.H.S=(h/1+h)g(x)
when you are saying L.H S=R.H.S
either g(x) has to be zero always
or if it doesnt then two possibilities
i) f(x)→0 which will make g(x) meaningful
ii)f(x)/h will in other cases be ∞ or -∞
thus a little difference between the two multiplying factors will change the story a lot!
for h=(h/1+h) => h2/1+h = 0
but neither h2=0 or 1+h=0
so there will be a difference !
sir,
was it an intution or is there any reason behind this?????
let f(y+n)/f(y)= kn