Functional equations-doubt

let f:R\rightarrow R

and f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for all x,y\epsilon R

f(x) is continuous at x=0

find f(x)........[JEE 1981]

7 Answers

66
kaymant ·

The obvious answers: f(x) = constant; f(x) = kx
(The proofs is what you require I think.)

1
Samarth Kashyap ·

yes, sir....i guessed the ans...but i dont know the proof

24
eureka123 ·

f'(x)=lim f(x+h)-f(x)/h
h→0
f'(x)=lim f(x) +f(h) -f(x) /h

f'(x)=lim f(h)/h

also f'(0)=lim f(0+h)-f(0)/h
=> f'(x) is constant
=> f'(x) =k

dy/dx= k
=>y=kx+c
we know that f(0)=0
=>c=0

f(x)=kx

66
kaymant ·

eureka... in the problem, it has not been specified whether f is differentiable.. it only states continuity.. so your solution above is not exactly valid.

3
msp ·

find f(2),f(3)......f(n) and u can the generalise the series.

66
kaymant ·

It is easy to see that we have
f(x1 + x2 + x3 + . . . + xn) = f(x1) + f(x2) + f(x3)+ . . . + f(xn)
Setting all the xi's equal to 1, we get
f(n)=n f(1)
So taking k = f(1), we see that for all naturals n, we have
f(n)=kn ----- (1)
Setting y = -x in the given functional equation, we get f(0)=f(x)+f(-x)
But f(0) =0 (which can be obtained by setting x=y=0), hence f(-x)=-f(x) implying that f is odd.
Accordingly, if x be a negative integer, set x = -n where n now is positive integer.
So, f(x)=f(-n)=-f(n)=-kn = k(-n) = kx
So for all integers, f(x) = kx
Next, let x be a rational number: x = p/q where p,q are integers and gcd(p,q)=1.
Then
kp=f(p)=f(q(p/q))=qf(p/q)
so that f(p/q)=k p/q
Hence for rational x also, we have f(x)=kx.
Finally, if x is an irrational point, then we use the continuity of f to prove that f(x)=kx.
More specifically, consider an irrational number x0. Consider a sequence of rational numbers {xi} whose limit is x0. (Such a sequence can always be found since there are infinitely many rationals in the vicinity of any irrational number).
Consider the sequence of the corresponding function values {f(xi)}. Since all the xi's are rational, we have
{f(xi}={kxi} = k{xi} → kx0 ------- (2)
Since the function is continuous, lim of f(x) as x→x0 is same as f(x0). Accordingly, for an irrational number x0,
f(x0)=lim_{x→x0} f(x)= k x0 (from (2))

Hence, for all real x, we get f(x) =k x.

24
eureka123 ·

yes sir thats true.....[1][1]
but since i already knew the answer...i differentiated it ..[3][3]

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