then the value of dy/dx at x=Î is
1@Nishant
If we don't use leibnitz,then what should be used???
24 Answers
1me getting 2Π+ Π/12√2...
its a simple prob... i dun think there's ne other correct ans...
if any plz post...
62ok.. gr8 then i will check the answer :)
sorry for underestimating ;)
1@Nishant,
I did the same thing which you mentioned,but the answer i get is not there in the given options!!!!
62see there could be 2 ways..
one by lebinitz that you guys are trying.. (that is the easier way out.. without a doubt!)
but i was wondering if you have takn cos x outside.. before differnetiating..
If you have then good... (that is one thing that i was trying to point out!)
If not you will have to dirty your hand..
FIrst take cosx outside. then integrate and then differentiate agian.. (i know it is more stupid!) but for ppl who dont know lebinitz and are afraid to do that :)
62hmm.. u dont need it dear.. that is what i was trying to say..
you can take cosx outside.. cant you??
1ok here is the datailed form
2x(cos2x)/(1+sin2x) - x/8(cosxcosx/4/(1+sin2x/4)
just put x=Ï€
1by leibnitz's rule
y'(x) = (d(x2)/dx)f(x2) - d(x2/16)/dx(f(x2/16)
where f(x) = the one given in tinside
jut replace π in place of x