1 Answers
Sourish Ghosh
·2014-05-12 05:44:14
Nope. Consider m = n.
→ (1, m)
m can take any integral value, so 1 has infinite images. Hence not a function.
- Himanshu Giria thanx...
Upvote·0· Reply ·2014-05-12 06:08:26
- Himanshu Giria but is there any other method ...