given that b>a>0
6 Answers
souradeepmajumde majumder
·2010-12-24 10:20:51
ANS IS B.............
STEPS
TAKE b^n common . it comes out as b.
b(1+a/b^n)^1/n
since b>a then a/b fraction. its ^nbecomes 0......... so ans is b(1+0)
that is b
THANKS SOURADEEP MAJUMDER
Shubhodip
·2010-12-24 11:02:27
@souradeep
take a^n common answer will be A....:)
though i also think it will be B
my method is
{bn}(1/n)<(an+bn)<{2(b)n}(1/n)
from squeeze thorem it is b
but i dnt hv answer...
got the stuff on net..
souradeepmajumde majumder
·2010-12-26 00:14:20
@ SHUBHODIP
B>A THEN IF YOU COMMON A^N THEN B/A IS GREATER THAN 1 THAT TO THE POWER INFINITE IS INFINITE.......
THANKS SOURADEEP MAJUMDER