is the ans c
\int_{0}^{100\pi }{} (sin x)(e^{(\mid cos x\mid + \mid sin x\mid )})(log \mid sin x\mid ) dx is equal to
A) 100 B)2 C) 0 D)50\pi
-
UP 0 DOWN 0 0 4
4 Answers
Manmay kumar Mohanty
·2010-02-11 05:30:40
It may be since i don't know the ans.
By the how have u done it.Please elaborate how to proceed.
t2sif
·2010-02-11 07:06:35
2 pie is the period of ths fn so taking out 50 and than proceding frthr
then use the definite integral property in which limits are halfed
sorrry i coldnt write the oln cause i m new to it n dont know to express various symbols