62
Lokesh Verma
·2010-03-13 10:31:09
This one is more a googley i guess
if log x is greater than 1, the function is zero..
If log x is less than 1, the function is x
So the integral is indeed a
11
SANDIPAN CHAKRABORTY
·2010-03-13 10:40:21
@ nishant bhayia
they have broken the (log x)(log x)(log x)(log x)....
in this way....
(log x)(log x)(log x)..... { ( ---> 0 ) for 1<x<e
{1 for x=e
{ (---> infinity) for x>e
how can they say the first break up.....
suhd'nt it be tending to minus infinity..??
29
govind
·2010-03-13 11:41:15
@Sandipan..
Anything < 1 ..multiplied infinite times will yield 0..
and anything > 1 multiplied by infinite times yield ∞...
since logx < 1 ..when x ε ( 1,e)
and logx > 1 when x ε (e , ∞ )