Test:289 QNo:2

Let n be a positive integer with f(n) = 1! + 2! + 3! +........n! and R(x) and Q(x) be polynomials in x such that

f(n+2)= R(n)f(n+1) + Q(n)f(n) for all nâ‰¥1.

Now let P(x) = - Q(x)/R(x) (for all x â‰¥ 1) denotes the probability of an arbitrary event. then P(1).P(2) is

√ √ || {} [] () → ~ ^ x x x → → ln log lg lim lim cos sin tan cot arcsin arccos arctan

∫ ∫ ∫ ∫ ∫ ∬ ∬ ∬ ∬ ∬ ∭ ∭ ∭ ∭ ∭ ⨌ ⨌ ⨌ ⨌ ⨌

∑ ∑ ∑ ∑ ∑ ∮ ∮ ∮ ∮ ∮ ∏ ∏ ∏ ∏ ∏ ∐ ∐ ∐ ∐ ∐

+ - × ÷ ± ∓ = ∪ ∩ ≠ ∼ ≈ ∅ ∀ ∃ ∈ ∋ ∝ ≤ ≥ ≃ ≅ ≡ < > ≪ ≫ ⊂ ∉ ⊃ ⊆ ⊇ ⇒ ⇐ ⇔ ⇒ ⇐ ⇔ ⇑ ⇓ ⇕ → ← ↔ → ← ↔ ↑ ↓ ↕ ↖ ↗ ↘ ↙ ↪ ↩ ⇀ ↼ ⇁ ↽

° ∂ ∞ α β γ δ θ λ μ ν ξ π ρ σ φ ω ε ƒ κ τ υ Γ Δ Λ Σ Π Ω