arent they the same (just inversed constants)
V=IR => V proportional to R
I=V/R=(1/R)V => I proportional to V
Ohm's law states that the current in a wire is directly proportional to the potential difference across it's ends, right?
So why do we write V prop'l to I
when the law states I prop'l to V ?
arent they the same (just inversed constants)
V=IR => V proportional to R
I=V/R=(1/R)V => I proportional to V
Just a small, basic and stupid doubt. Please don't mind it! I fell really stupid for asking this thing. Thanks satan and sankarapandian, anyway :)