aieee2008

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The statement p->(q->p) is equivalent to

ans. p->(p\veeq)

sum1 ...plz explain

#Mathematics #Fundamentals

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7 Answers

13

deepanshu001 agarwal ·2009-04-21 07:41:18

y is every1 ignorin this ques ...... there will definitely a be ques of this sort ...

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1

sriraghav ·2009-04-21 07:43:20

wait a min... iwill help u...

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11

Mani Pal Singh ·2009-04-21 07:45:40

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1

sriraghav ·2009-04-21 07:47:52

there is a property in m.logic.....as stated below

~(pâ†’q)=p ^ ~q

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13

deepanshu001 agarwal ·2009-04-21 07:48:11

mani u r really helpful

but even i hav the soln and this truth table magar

i cudnt understand ki -> wale operation ke baad result kaise nikaalte hain ....

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1

sriraghav ·2009-04-21 07:50:29

pâ†’(qâ†’p) = ~p v (~q v p) = ~p v p v ~q = pâ†’(p v q)

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1

sriraghav ·2009-04-21 07:52:36

pâ†’q means ---- if ....then.......

This relation/operation will take the false value if p is true and q is false...and in othercases it takes true value...just memorize this result

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Your Answer

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√ √ || {} [] () → ~ ^ x x x → → ln log lg lim lim cos sin tan cot arcsin arccos arctan

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