Q) A particle is moving in a circle of radius R, such that at every instant the magnitudes of the instananeous accn and the radial accn are equal. If vel. of the particle be v0 at time t=0, find the time reqd for the completion of half of the 1st revolution.
What I did was this :-
\frac{v^2}{r}=\frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{vdv}{dx}
Integrating we have v=e^{\pi}.v_0.
Now applying v=\frac{dx}{dt}=v_0.e^{\pi} & \int_{0}^{\pi r}{dx}=\int_{0}^{T}{v_0.e^{\pi}dt}, I'm getting T=\pi \frac{R}{v_0}e^{-\pi}......which surely is one of the options but sadly - not the ans.
Where am I goin' wrong?
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1 Answers
1bhaiya
i tink the mistake is somewhere in the integration part . shouldn't there be a ' x' somewhere?
