49
Subhomoy Bakshi
·2009-12-27 10:58:03
accn=\alpha \vec{r}
or, {\color{red} \frac{\partial v}{\partial t}}=\alpha \vec{r}
or, {\color{blue} v\frac{\partial v}{\partial r}}=\alpha \vec{r}
or,v{\partial v}=-\alpha r{\partial r}{\color{green} }
or,\int v{\partial v}=\int -\alpha r{\partial r} \Rightarrow v^2=-\alpha r^2
is this approach correct??????
shall i proceed with this??
66
kaymant
·2009-12-27 20:41:12
A few things about the motion:
1) The force is always directed towards the origin.
2) The angular momentum about the origin does not change. (Why?)
3) For all times, the velocity vector is perpendicular to the position vector. (How?)
4) The distance of the particle remains constant from the origin.
5) The acceleration vector is of the form -\omega^2\vec{r}.
The deduction: The particle moves in a circle of radius r0 uniformly with a speed v0.
1
Anirudh Kumar
·2009-12-27 22:42:32
sir
2) force passes through the origin thus no net torque. (α \propto -\vec{r})
11
Devil
·2009-12-29 06:34:17
thanx anant sir.
Himmm thinking abt the why's and how's....